(Based on a transcript of the author’s lecture)
The Bible is a collection of writings
by many different authors. The Qur’an is a dictation. The speaker
in the Qur’an -- in the first person -- is God talking directly
to man. In the Bible, you have many men writing about God and you have
in some places the word of God speaking to men and still in other places
you have some men simply writing about history. The Bible consists of 66
small books. About 18 of them begin by saying: This is the revelation God
gave to so and so… The rest make no claim as to their origin. You have,
for example, the beginning of the Book of Jonah (sws) which begins by saying:
The word of the Lord came to Jonah the son of Elmitaeh saying… and then
it continues for two or three pages.
If you compare that to one of the
four accounts of the life of Jesus (sws), Luke begins by saying: ‘many
people have written about this man, it seems fitting for me to do so too’.
That is all… no claim of saying ‘these words were given to me by God here
they are for you it is a revelation’.
The Bible does not contain self-reference,
that is, the word ‘Bible’ is not in the Bible. Nowhere does the Bible talk
about itself. Some scriptures are sometimes pointed to in the Bible in
this regard. For example 2nd Timothy 3:16 is the favourite. It reads: ‘All
scripture is inspired of God’ and there are those who would say: ‘Here
is where the Bible it talks about itself, it says it is inspired by God
-- all of it’. But if you read the whole sentence, you read that this was
a letter wrote by Paul to Timothy and the entire sentence says to Timothy:
‘Since you were a young man you have studied the holy scriptures, all scriptures
inspired by God’ and so on… When Timothy was a young man the New Testament
did not exist, the only thing that seems he was talking about are scriptures
– which are only a portion of the Bible -- from before that time. It could
not have meant the whole Bible.
There is at the end of the Bible a
verse which says: ‘Let anyone who takes away from this book or adds to
this book be cursed’. This too is sometimes pointed to me. But look again
and you will see that when it says: Let no one change this book, it is
talking about that last book, number 66, the Book of Revelation. It has
too, because any reference will tell you that the Book of Revelation was
written before certain other parts of the Bible were written. It happens
today to be stacked at the end, but there are other parts that came after,
so it cannot be referring to the entire book.
It is an extreme position held only
by some Christian groups that the Bible – in its entirety -- cover to cover
is the revealed word of God in every word, but they do a clever thing when
they mention this, or make this claim. They will say that the Bible in
its entirety is the word of God; inerrant (no mistakes) in the original
writings. So if you go to the Bible and point out some mistakes that are
in it you are going to be told: Those mistakes were not there in the original
manuscript, they have crept in so that we see them there today. They is
a problem in this stance. There is a verse in the Bible Isaiah 40:8 which
in fact is so well known that some Bibles printed it on the inside front
cover as an introduction and it says : ‘The grass weathers, the flower
fades, but the word of our God stands forever’. Here is a claim in the
Bible that the word of God will stand forever, it will not be corrupted,
it won’t be lost. So if today you find a mistake in the Bible you have
two choices. Either that promise was false that when God said that His
word won’t fade away, He was mistaken, or the portion which has the mistake
in it was not a part of the word of God in the first place because the
promise was that it would be safeguarded; it would not be corrupted.
I have suggested many times that there
are mistakes in the Bible and the accusation comes back very quickly: ‘Show
me one’. Well there are hundreds. If you want to be specific I can mention
a few. You have for example at 2nd Samuel 10:18 a description of a war
fought by David saying that he killed 7000 men and that he also killed
40000 men on horsebacks. In 1st Chronicles 19 it mentions the same episode
saying that he killed 70000 men and the 40000 men were not on horsebacks;
they were on foot. Matthew 27:5 says that Judas Iscariot when he died,
hung himself. Acts 1 says that no he jumped off a cliff head first. If
you study logic very soon you will come in your course to what they call
an ‘indecisive proposition’ or a ‘meaningless sentence’ or a statement
that cannot be decided. One of the classic examples sited is something
called the Effeminites paradox. This man was Cretan and he said: ‘Cretans
always lie’; now was that statement true or false? If he was a Cretan and
he says that they always lie, is he lying? If he is not lying then he is
telling the truth then the Cretans don’t always lie ! You see it cannot
be true and it cannot be false; the statement turns back on itself. It
is like saying: ‘What I am telling you right now is a lie’; would you believe
that or not? You see the statement has no true content. It cannot be true
and it cannot be false. If it is true it is always false. If it is false
it is also true.
In the Bible, at Titus 1:12, the writer
is Paul and he is talking about the Cretans. He says that one of their
own men – a prophet - said ‘Cretans always lie’ and he says that what this
man says is true. It is a small mistake, but the point is that it is a
human mistake, you don’t find that if you carefully examine the true content
of that statement. It cannot be a true statement.
Now I come back to the Qur’an.
I have mentioned earlier that the speaker in the Qur’an -- in the
first person – is God. The book claims throughout that it is the word of
God. It names itself 70 times as the Qur’an. It talks about its
own contents. It has self-reference. The Qur’an states in the first
Surah
after Fatihah: ‘This is the book, there is no doubt in it, it is a
guidance for those who are conscious of God’ and so on and so on…
And there is one very amazing statement
in the Qur’an: when you come to the 82nd verse of the fourth surah
which
addresses those who say Qur’an is something else than the word of
God. It challenges them by saying: ‘Have they not considered the Qur’an,
if it came from someone other than God they will find in it many mistakes’.
Some of you may be students; would you dare to hand in a paper after you
completed a research work and at the bottom you put down there: ‘You wont
find mistakes in this’. Would you dare to challenge your professor that
way?. Well the Qur’an does that. It is telling us: ‘If you really
think you know where this came from then start looking for mistakes because
you wont find any’.
So the difference in Christianity
and Islam comes down to a difference of authority and appeal to authority.
The Christian wants to appeal to the Bible and the Muslim wants to appeal
to the Qur’an. You cannot stop by saying: ‘This is true because
my book says it, and somebody else would say something else is true because
my book says differently’. You cannot stop at that point, and the Qur’an
does
not. The Christian may point to some words that it is recorded Jesus (sws)
said and say this proves his point. But the Muslim does not simply open
his book and say: ‘No, no the Qur’an says this’, because the Qur’an
does not simply deny something the Bible says and say something else
instead. The Qur’an takes the form of a rebuttal, it is a guidance
as its opening verses say. So that for every suggestion that the Christian
may say: ‘My Bible says such and such’, the Qur’an
will not simply
say: ‘No that is not true’, it will say: ‘Do they say such and such; then
ask them such and such’. You have for example the verse that compares Jesus
(sws) and Adam (sws). There are those who may say that Jesus must have
been God (son of God) because he had no father. He had a woman who was
his mother, but there was no human father. It was God Who gave him life,
so he must have been God’s son. The Qur’an reminds the Christian
in one short sentence to remember Adam: ‘Who was his father?’ -- and in
fact: ‘Who was his mother?’ He did not have a father either and in fact
he did not have a mother, but what does that make him? So that the likeness
of Adam (sws) is the likeness of Jesus (sws), they were nothing and then
they became something.
In other words, the Qur’an does
not demand belief, it invites belief, and here is the fundamental difference.
It is not simply delivered as: ‘Here is what you are to believe’, but throughout
the Qur’an the statements are always: ‘Have you O man thought of
such and such, have you considered so and so’. It is always an invitation
for you to look at the evidence.
The citation of the Bible very often
takes the form of what is called in Argumentation: ‘Special Pleading’.
‘Special Pleading’ is when implications are not consistent. When you take
something and you say: ‘Well that must mean this’, but you don’t use the
same argument to apply it to something else. To give an example, I have
seen it in publications many times, stating that Jesus (sws) must have
been God because he worked miracles. On the other hand, we know very well
that there is no miracle ever worked by Jesus (sws) that is not also recorded
in the Old Testament as worked by other Prophets. You had amongst others,
Elijah (sws), who is reported to have cured the leper, raise the dead boy
to life and to have multiplied bread for the people to eat -- three of
the most favourite miracles cited by Jesus (sws). If the miracles worked
by Jesus (sws) proved he was God, why don’t they prove Elijah (sws) was
God ? This is ‘Special Pleading’, if you see what I mean. We have those
who would say Jesus (sws) was God because he was taken up in the heaven.
But the Bible also says that a certain Einah (sws) did not die; he was
taken up into the heaven by God. Whether it is true or not, who knows,
but the point is if Jesus (sws) being taken up proves he is God, why does
not it prove Einah was God? The same thing happened to him.
Once I wrote to a person who had written
a book on Christianity. I mentioned some of the objections I have referred
to here. And his reply to me was that I was making matters difficult to
myself, that there are portions in the Bible that are crystal clear and
that there are portions that are difficult, and that my problem was that
I am looking at the difficult part instead of the clear parts. The problem
is that this is an exercise in self deception. Why are some parts clear
and some parts difficult? To give you an example, John Chapter 14 a certain
man said to Jesus (sws): ‘Show us God’, and Jesus (sws) said: ‘If you have
seen me you have seen God’. Now without reading on the Christian will say:
‘See Jesus (sws) claimed to be God; he said that if you have seen him you
have seen God’. If that is crystal clear then you have a difficult portion
when you go back just a few pages to Chapter 5 when another man came to
Jesus (sws) and said: ‘Show us God’, and he said: ‘You have never seen
God you have never heard his voice’. Now what did he mean there if on the
other occasion he meant that he was God? If you read on in Chapter 14,
you will see what he went on to say. He was saying the closest you are
going to seeing God are the works you see me doing.
It is a fact that the words ‘son of
God’ are not found on the lips of Jesus (sws) anywhere in the first three
Gospel accounts; he is always calling himself the ‘son of man’. And it
is a curious form of reasoning that I have seen so often that it is established
from the Bible that he claimed to be God because -- look how the Jews reacted.
They will say for example he said such and such and the Jews said he is
blaspheming; he claimed to be God and they tried to stone him. So they
argue that he must have been claiming to be God because look ! -- the Jews
tried to kill him. They said that’s what he was claiming. But the interesting
thing is that all the evidence is then built on the fact that a person
is saying: I believed that Jesus (sws) was the son of God because the Jews
who killed him said that’s what he used to say! His enemies used to say
that so he must have said it; this is what it amounts to. On other hand,
we have the words of Jesus (sws) saying he would keep the law, the law
of Moses (sws) and we have that statement in the Bible: Why then did the
Jews kill him? Because he broke the law of Moses (sws). Obviously, the
Jews misunderstood him; if he promised he would keep the law, but they
killed him because he broke the law, they must have misunderstood him,
or lied about him.
When I talk about the Bible and quote
various verses here and there, I am often accused of putting things out
of context. I don’t want to respond to the accusation as such, but it doesn’t
seem to occur to many people that perhaps those who wrote portions of the
Bible in the first place were guilty of the same thing. Maybe they – some
of those writers -- believed a certain thing and in order to prove it quoted
from their scriptures – the Old Testament, the Hebrew writings -- quoted
out of context to prove their point. There are examples of that kind of
thing. In Matthew 2, it said that a king wanted to kill the young child
Jesus (sws) so he with his family went to Egypt, and they stayed there
until that king died, and then they came back. When the writer of Matthew,
whoever he was because the name Matthew won’t be found in the book of Matthew:
when he described this event saying that he came back out of Egypt, he
said: ‘This was to fulfil a prophecy which is written’ and then he quotes
Hosea Chapter 11 ‘Out of Egypt I called my Son’. So he said because Jesus
(sws) went to Egypt and then came back out of Egypt and we have this passage
in the Hebrew scriptures ‘Out of Egypt I called my son’, Jesus (sws) must
have been the son of God. If you look and see what he was quoting, Hosea
11:1 he quotes the second half of a complete sentence, the complete sentence
reads: ‘When Israel was young I loved him and out of Egypt I called my
son’. Israel the nation was considered as the son of God. Moses (sws) was
told to go to Pharaoh and say to him: ‘If you touch that nation of people,
you touch my son; warning the Pharaoh: don’t touch that nation, calling
the nation "the son of God" ’. So that this is the only thing talked about
in Hosea 11:1. ‘Out of Egypt I called my son’ can only refer to the nation
of Israel. I mentioned this point some months ago here in another talk,
to which a young lady with us objected that Israel is a symbolic name for
Jesus (sws). You will have a hard time finding that anywhere in the Bible
because it isn’t there. You can take an index of the Bible and lookup the
word ‘Israel’ everywhere the word occurs and you will find no where in
any place that you can connect the word Israel with Jesus (sws). But never
mind -- suppose it is true, read on; the second verse says: ‘and after
that he kept on worshipping Bal’, because this is what the Israelites were
guilty of; very often they kept falling back into Idol worshipping. So
that if ‘Israel’ really meant Jesus (sws) and it means that Jesus (sws)
is the son of God that came out of Egypt, they must also mean that Jesus
(sws) from time to time used to bow down to that idol Bal. You have to
be consistent, and follow through on what it says. So the point is whoever
wrote Matthew and Chapter 2 was trying to prove a point by quoting something
out of context, and he undid himself, because if you follow through on
it, it cannot be so.
Now I can come back to the claim the
Qur’an
makes that it has internal evidence of its origin. There are many many
ways that you can look at this. As one example, if I single out somebody
here and say: ‘You know, I know your father’ -- he is going to doubt that
he has never seen me with his father. He would ask: ‘How does he look like’,
‘Is he tall or short’, ‘Does he wear glasses?’, and so on. And if I give
him the right answers, pretty soon he will get convinced ‘Oh yes, you did
meet him’. If you apply the same kind of thinking when you look at the
Qur’an, here is a book that says it came from the one who was there
when the universe began. So you should be asking: ‘Tell me something that
proves it; tell me something that shows me you must have been there when
the universe was beginning’. You will find in two different verses the
statement that all the creation began from a single point, and from this
point it is expanding. In 1978 they gave the Noble prize to two people
who proved that this was the case. It is the big bang origin of the universe.
It was determined by the large radio receivers that they have for the telephone
companies which were sensitive enough to pick up the transmissions from
satellites and it kept finding background noise that they could not account
for. Until the only explanation came to be, it is the left over energy
from that original explosion which fits in exactly as would be predicted
by the mathematical calculation of what would be this thing if the universe
began from a single point and exploded outwards. So they confirmed that,
but in 1978. Centuries before that, here is the Qur’an saying the
heavens and the earth in the beginning they were one piece and split and
says in another verse: ‘Of the heavens we are expanding it’ (51:47).