Studying Islam

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[quote]QUOTE of waseem: - Then the definition of a muslim according to the Qur'an. amar i bilmaroof and nahi unil munkar.

I think, every religion advises for, “amar i bilmaroof and nahi unil munkar (enjoin the good and forbid the evil – 31: 17)” If some non-muslims do bad deeds (like some Muslims do), their religion NEVER allows them. Could you please elaborate further, if I am not correct?

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FOLLOWING IS JUST BY THE WAY,

To date, I have been the member of this site for last 2 years, 1 month and 14 days. One thing which I still could not understand, “Some Muslims of today’s thinking say about some Quranic verses that these are for the Prophet Mohammad’s (peace be upon him) time ONLY” while Holy Quran is the Last Book of God till the Day of Judgment. So according to this logic of the Muslims, more than half of the Holy Quran does not seem to be applicable to us. For example, in the verse 31: 17 (amar i bilmaroof and nahi unil munkar) Prophet Luqman (peace be upon him) is advising his son to enjoin the good and forbid the evil. So according to the logic mentioned above, how the verse can be applicable to us? Similarly how the talks between prophet Musa (peace be upon him) and Firon, between prophet Yusuf (peace be upon him) and Zulaikha, between prophets Nuh (peace be upon him), Loot (peace be upon him), Saleh (peace be upon him) etc and their nations and between prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) and the Mushrekeen, are applicable to us. Holy Quran is full of such matters of the past. So what is the base on which the Muslims say that these verses are for the Prophet’s (peace be upon him) time ONLY.

Wassalaam![/quote]

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