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The Right to Beat Wives
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[quote][quote]Can we discover new meaning in the words used in the Qur'an or we have only to restrict to the meaning of the words known to its first addressees? Please comment. Can we say that the Qur'an uses certain words the meaning of which have recently been discovered and have never been known by any till today and still consider it a CLEAR BOOK; a claim that Qur'an repeatedly asserts? Can this we say of any other work of the old times?[/quote] Hey thanks for your reply! You know, this is the source of my dillema with regard to these verses and their interpretation. Of course the clear Arabic of the Quran needs to be rendered as it was understood by it's initial adresees. I am in complete agreement with you. In fact it is this [b]emphasis on the message as it was understood by the meccan arabs of the prophet's(saws)time [/b] that initially attracted me to the work of you and your colleagues at Understanding Islam/Studying Islam and Renassaince MOnthly. So please understand that I have nothing but respect for the intellectual integrity of the position taken by you. However in this particular instance It seems to me that the thrust of the Quran (and Allah knows best) is aiming at [b]limiting[/b] the scope of abuse that men of the time may have been prone to. I offered Shabbir Ally's commmentary as an example of a novel linguistic understanding that I have absolutley no knowledge to sufficiently argue for or against. Moreover, I am unsure at how he arrived at his understanding and whether or not he rigourous in determining the meaning of words as understood by 7th century meccan arabs. I was simply giving an example. I am however assuming that the rendering Mr. Ghamidi gives of the arabic in these verses is the correct one. But even so. Is it impossible Mr. Hashmi, that the permission to lightly admonish 'rebellious' wives after no other recourse was an expiation for arab men of the time who were already being inundated with (from teir perspective) an alarming number of rights for women? BTW this is an actual question not rhetorical. Furthermore, what say you about my notes on slavery, is this example at all relevant to the discussion? Also as far as the example of our prophet(saws), It really has seemed odd to me that although we find him refraining from hitting his wives, we are not encouraged to follow him in this regard. Any reason? Looking forward to your response brother. Edited by: locust on Wednesday, July 07, 2004 6:27 AM[/quote]
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