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[quote]Dear Zeenaeem

In Holy Quran, chapter 4 verse 25. it is stated that :

004.025 If any of you have not the means wherewith to wed free believing women, they may wed believing girls from among those whom your right hands possess: And Allah hath full knowledge about your faith. Ye are one from another: Wed them with the leave of their owners, and give them their dowers, according to what is reasonable: They should be chaste, not lustful, nor taking paramours: when they are taken in wedlock, if they fall into shame, their punishment is half that for free women. This (permission) is for those among you who fear sin; but it is better for you that ye practise self-restraint. And Allah is Oft-forgiving, Most Merciful.

Here ALLAH almighty gave a permission to Muslim men that if they don't have means to marry a believing women then they can marry the slave girls. Now, this is again a privelage or permission given in some special circumstance same as in the verse 4:3.

Here if u see ALLAH Almighty says that "This (permission) is for those among you who fear sin; but it is better for you that ye practise self-restraint" Now can you please explain what does it mean ? There are 2 very important points in it :

1. This persmission is only for those who fear sin.

2. It is "BETTER" to avoid, even for those who fear sin.

If it is better to avoid marriage even u fear sin ( provided u don't have means ) then how can it be an order to marry just to be safe from sins ??

Looking forward for your explanation.

The Fatwa u talked so many times, I have just read that and quoting from the same Fatwa:

. Marriage is considered fard (obligatory) if a person is so tormented by sexual desire that he/she fears falling into the sin of fornication. Since staying away from fornication is obligatory, and since marriage is the only avenue for legitimate sexual satisfaction, it becomes obligatory on such a person to get married. This is based on the principle in jurisprudence that says: “If an obligatory thing cannot be fulfilled except by fulfilling another, then fulfilling the latter becomes equally obligatory.”

It is clearly stated in this Fatwa as well, if u agree on it that marriage is Fardh only if a person is so tormented by sexual desire that he/she fears falling into the sin of fornication. This clearly means that if a person is not tormented by sexual desire to the extent that he fears fornication then its not a Fardh.

I am very sorry to say that the Fatwa u have been quoting so many times, u didn't even read that carefully. Please make sure that u have read it completely before quoting.

I have to talk some more on the same Fatwa but currently very short of time. InshaALLAH I'll post some more points on the same Fatwa tomorrow morning ( Pakistan Time ). Right now I'll only say that this Fatwa is exactly the same what I have been telling to u & I'll prove it tomorrow.

ALLAH Hafiz

Edited by: atifrafi on Friday, August 06, 2004 5:18 AM[/quote]

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