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Junaidj
CANADA
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 Topic initiated on Sunday, November 21, 2004 - 9:31 AM 
Drinking and Slavery
Technically speaking, Drinking has been explicitly forbidden in the Koran. I am just wondering if slavery has been explicitly forbidden as well?
If wine was forbidden and as we know, the streets of Medina were flooded with wine when the command arrived, why not so with slavery? There were plenty of women for the Arabs (given the fact that they had many wives), why not ban sex slaves, just like ban on alcohol?
Edited by: junaidj on Sunday, November 21, 2004 10:06 AM |
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saadiamalik
PAKISTAN
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Posted - Sunday, November 21, 2004 - 10:44 AM 
quote:
Technically speaking, Drinking has been explicitly forbidden in the Koran. I am just wondering if slavery has been explicitly forbidden as well?
If wine was forbidden and as we know, the streets of Medina were flooded with wine when the command arrived, why not so with slavery? There were plenty of women for the Arabs (given the fact that they had many wives), why not ban sex slaves, just like ban on alcohol?
Assalaamu Alaikum.
It seems deducable from the Qur'an, that both wine and slavery were forbidden gradually, so as to avoid reactionary impulses, as well as the incident of upsetting society in a violent way.
To take both cases briefly:
1) Wine may have been gradually forbidden, bearing in mind its inebriating and addictive qualities. In the beginning, for that matter, the believers were commanded to stay away from prayers while in a state of intoxication. I see this as a gradual inculcation of values against alcoholism.
2) A very popular idea behind the gradual eradication of slavery is, as quoted by Mawlana Islahi and his pupils, is that if slave men and women were freed within the passage of a night, it would not only have increased incidences of beggary in society, but would also have promoted the existence of brothels. For a detailed essay, please see http://www.monthly-renaissance.com/mared95.html.
Wasalaam.
Saadia
Edited by: saadiamalik on Sunday, November 21, 2004 12:05 PM |
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Junaidj
CANADA
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Posted - Sunday, November 21, 2004 - 7:41 PM
So I gather from you that drinking was gradually forbidden. I agree.
1) Slavery was discouraged but not forbidden during the time of the Prophet. So the forbidding command is an implication of the Koran? Right? The forbidding command is not explicit. So can there be imposing commands which are not explicit? I.E., My sub question (if you dont mind my analogical deductions :) would be about the implicit obligation of Hijab?
2) Also, Could it not have been that, despite having slaves, sexual relations with slaves have been discouraged if not forbidden at the time slavery existed in Arabia? Also I am not sure whether sexual relations with slaves was forced?
See the following narrative:
http://www.understanding-islam.org/related/text.asp?type=question&qid=3084
Translation of Sahih Muslim: Book 008, Number 3373:
Abu Sa'id al-Khudri (Allah be pleased with him) reported: We took women captives, and we wanted to do 'azl with them. We then asked Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) about it, and he said to us: Verily you do it, verily you do it, verily you do it, but the soul which has to be born until the Day of judgment must be born.
Edited by: junaidj on Sunday, November 21, 2004 7:47 PM |
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