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waseem
UNITED KINGDOM
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 Topic initiated on Sunday, February 4, 2007 - 8:00 AM 
prophet pbuh's marrige to Hazrat Khadijah rta
I will be grateful for the views of my learned friends on the reasons behind the marriage of prophet pbuh to Hazrat Khadijah rta. As I understand, Hazrat Khadijah was 40 years old and a widow, prophet pbuh was 25 an unmarried till then. We are talking about a male dominated-suppressed women rights syndrome. Wives were won and lost in gambling. Some say girls were killed when they were born. Polygamy was socially acceptable. Why did prophet pbuh chose to accept such a match. Even today such an age difference would be unusual. The only historical fact we know is that Hazrat Khadijah rta was a rich lady. |
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raushan
UNITED ARAB EMIRATES
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Posted - Tuesday, February 6, 2007 - 9:30 AM 
A prophet is an authoritative person by definition who establish rules on the basis of divine guidence.
One of the beauty of prophethood is to establish certain standards and norms for his followers.These standards may or may not match the practices in existing societies.
"Unusual"may be what is not a common practice among people of a certain period or may be illogical to the thinker.
Again,logical reason has some limits because its based on the knowledge.This knowledge is not static but has an increasing tendency.
It took us many centuries to be usual with "circumcision"a rule established by prophet for males. |
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waseem
UNITED KINGDOM
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Posted - Tuesday, February 6, 2007 - 12:23 PM
Salam brother Raushan
Prophet pbuh was not yet a prophet when he married Hazrat Khadijah. Unless you are stating in future referance. |
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raushan
UNITED ARAB EMIRATES
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Posted - Tuesday, February 6, 2007 - 12:48 PM
nice catch!
thanks
But its also true He was a prophet during the lifetime of Hazrat Khadijah.
Has he ever declared it wrong, NO..instead he praised her always,even after her demise...to the extent of glorifying his marriage with Khadija(ra)
we must find something in books if it was wrong.
wassalam |
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tilawat
PAKISTAN
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Posted - Sunday, February 11, 2007 - 2:56 AM
What would you call this marriage in Islamic terminology; a Muslim marriage or...?
Khadijah was a rich business wman occupied in Import Export. No body tells how she got this wealth. She must have inherited this from her parents or husbands. Does it not contradict the stories that women were suppressed and denied inheritance by Arabs in pre-Islamic times? |
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raushan
UNITED ARAB EMIRATES
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Posted - Sunday, February 11, 2007 - 7:08 AM
quote:
...Khadijah was a rich business wman occupied in Import Export. No body tells how she got this wealth. She must have inherited this from her parents or husbands. Does it not contradict the stories that women were suppressed and denied inheritance by Arabs in pre-Islamic times?
I dare to say ,all of your statements are contradictory.
How come you know "she must have inherited this wealth from parents" when you admit "no body tell us"about the source of her wealth.
"she was occupied in export and import business ,is enough information to say why she was a rich and wealthy.
So the base of your main question itself in question.
Finally ,Khadija ,alone cant represent the entire society of arabs in pre islamic era and for that you need to present some more "stories" about that period. |
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tilawat
PAKISTAN
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Posted - Sunday, February 11, 2007 - 11:16 PM
Do you think she went into the business of Import/Export without any capital to start with and could emp;oy men like prophet to be?
How could you say that Khadijah was the only woman of her type and stature in pre-Islamic Arab society? I find no hint in the stories that she was considered to be an extraordinary woman before her husband attained prophet-hood. |
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tilawat
PAKISTAN
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Posted - Sunday, February 11, 2007 - 11:17 PM
Do you think she went into the business of Import/Export without any capital to start with and could emp;oy men like prophet to be?
How could you say that Khadijah was the only woman of her type and stature in pre-Islamic Arab society? I find no hint in the stories that she was considered to be an extraordinary woman before her husband attained prophet-hood. |
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tilawat
PAKISTAN
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Posted - Sunday, February 11, 2007 - 11:17 PM
Do you think she went into the business of Import/Export without any capital to start with and could employ men like prophet to be?
How could you say that Khadijah was the only woman of her type and stature in pre-Islamic Arab society? I find no hint in the stories that she was considered to be an extraordinary woman before her husband attained prophet-hood. |
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waseem
UNITED KINGDOM
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Posted - Tuesday, February 13, 2007 - 5:48 AM
this was the response from one of my friends when asked
firstly the male dominated supressed women thing was not a univeral rule in Arabia of the time. If gilrs were killed when they were born then how did Arab survived? Not all tribes and groups were the same and even not all individuals and families were the same.
All the evidences that we have from history point to the fact that they felt in love with each other. After passing away of Khadija the Prophet never failed to mentioned her as her best wife, not even in front of Ayesha. Yes, today this age difference is unusual but even today we can think of similar cases. Those days it was not unusual at all. The age gap between the two people were never an issue.
(you might be interested to explore according to some Christians what was the age gap between Marry and Joseph). |
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raushan
UNITED ARAB EMIRATES
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Posted - Tuesday, February 13, 2007 - 6:17 AM
quote:
...
How could you say that Khadijah was the only woman of her type and stature in pre-Islamic Arab society? I find no hint in the stories that she was considered to be an extraordinary woman before her husband attained prophet-hood.
How could you say that khadijah was not NOT the only woman of her type and stature in pre islamic arab society?
my objection was on your below statement:
"Does it not contradict the stories that women were suppressed and denied inheritance by Arabs in pre-Islamic times?"
will you plz elaborate this. |
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Ibrahimblicksjo
SWEDEN
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Posted - Monday, February 19, 2007 - 6:53 PM
| What I wan tto point out is in the first post. She was a rich lady. Yes she was a rich widow. But did Prophet Muhammad marry her because of that? You are right he was not a Prophet at that time. But was he not know as being al amin and as sadiq by all people around him? Did not Khadijah ask to marry him BECAUSE of trhe fact that she saw all these good qualities in him? Dont you think that it is a bit against this if Muhammad was just out for a quick catch so to speak? To marry her for status? |
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tilawat
PAKISTAN
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Posted - Monday, February 19, 2007 - 10:36 PM
Dear Ibrahim, you here give rise to a plethora of questions:
1. Can any person be bad or good., or have a morally praiseworthy character without being a Muslim?
2. What do you think about the character of Umar-bin-Khitab before he accepted Islam?
3. Was he not out to kill the Prophet before he came to believe in him?
4. Are we not following to-day his (Umar's) pre-Islamic character when we treat claimants of faiths other than the one we believe in deserving to be killed?
And so on if we but think? |
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raushan
UNITED ARAB EMIRATES
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Posted - Tuesday, February 20, 2007 - 12:33 PM
To decide Good or Bad about someone or something we must have certain parameters decided in advance.A person can be a good media personality for his reports but at the same time he can be the bad one because is spreading lies all over the world by showing only one side of the events.
Again,morality has no universal standards .what is good for west may be worst in the east.
A muslim definetly better because he follows devine standards meant for entire humanity whereas others may not have the same.
The character of Umar-bin-Khitab before he accepted Islam was also praisworthy because he has clear in his intentions or in acts,either with the prophet or against the prophet.He was not a hypocrite type.That is why when he come across what is revealed to Prophet, he did not waste a moment and accepted Islam .
Islam is a religion of peace.Its a practical religion.Treason ,killing and oppression without reason have a solid treatment as suggested in Islam,which no sensible prson can deny.
Edited by: raushan on Tuesday, February 20, 2007 1:15 PM |
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tilawat
PAKISTAN
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Posted - Wednesday, February 21, 2007 - 12:49 AM
Raushan
Excuse me dear, what you say is all subjective obscurantism. How can we discuss it objectively. The Holy Quran starts with 'All praise be to Allah who is sustainer of all the worlds', but you are placing yourself on a pedestal just because of your faith which is again only a subjective matter about which only God can know. But at the same time you say Umar was good both ways by judging his faith yourself. Btw: What about Umar-bin-Hishsham, nicknamed, Abujehl, then? How you judge him; a Munafiq?
How absurd: you can give a chance and wait to codemn Umar-bin-Khitab till he becomes a Muslim, but not so perhaps to Umar-bin-Hishsham. Why no charge of blasphemy against both of them under the Law of Blasphemy to which the Paki Muslims stand subject today, both publically and legally? |
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raushan
UNITED ARAB EMIRATES
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Posted - Wednesday, February 21, 2007 - 6:38 AM
Statements were mine and conclusion are yours.ok
You should read at the same time,[That is why when he come across what is revealed to Prophet, he did not waste a moment and accepted Islam]about Umar.This is not true with abu jahal,he rejected deliberately thats why he is a kafir.
was abu jahal killed or ever punished for blasphemy by Prophet?you got the answer. |
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