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Jewish Food
Question asked by Khurram Qamar.
Posted on: Sunday, October 15, 2006 - Hits: 3655

Question:
I have heard that the Jewish method of slaughtering an animal is the same as that of the Muslim method; therefore the meat that the Jews eat is halal for Muslims. However, the Jews consider Hadhrat Uzair (sws) to be the son of God, which makes it obvious that the God they believe in is not one, but two: Firstly, God Himself; and secondly, His son ( Na'uzubillah!) Thus, it means that when they slaughter an animal, they do take the Name of God but inside their hearts they also believe that (Na'uzubillah) there are two Gods. They must be believing that Uzair (sws) is a god, and while taking the name of God on the animal, they must be referring to Uzair (sws when they say Allah. So how is the meat slaughtered by Jews still hala for the Muslims?

Answer:
The fact that some of the Jews ascribed divinity to Uzair (sws) is something we know from the Qur'an. It is not universally true of all the Jews. It was at best only a group that lived even before the time the Prophet Muhammad (sws) lived. We know that mainstream Jews do not have such a belief.

When the Qur'an allows us to use the food of the Jews and the animals they slaughter then how can we disallow that. The author of the Qur'an always knew the fact because it was He who referred to that. he Qur'an considers the Jews among the People of the Book who are basically monotheists and the Qru'an considers them as such in opposition to the polytheists of Arabia. It would therefore not be wise and even allowable to go beyond the teachings of the Qur'an.

Regards,

Tairq Mahmood Hashmi
Research Assistant, Studying Islam

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